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We have a habit of blaming other factors for our mistakes, failure and unhappiness. Some blame God and some their fate. It’s an escapist idea, In fact it is you and only you who is responsible for your failure.
A happy person is one, who is happy even when he gets failure. He understands that success is possible only because there is failure. Therefore when failure comes, he accepts it willingly, rather considers it as a teacher and a guide for future.
Sometimes, it is good to know the ‘bad’. It helps to realise the ‘good’.
When there is sadness, you should have a taste of it and when there is joy, you must have a taste of it too. Then only you would realise that sometimes bitter things also taste better.
The only thing is that you have to keep on accepting challenges and the success is bound to touch your feet one day.
If some has not reached the cut-off marks, he should not feel sorry for it, because ultimately, this is a competition. Everybody makes mistakes, but one who makes lesser mistakes get more marks than others who make more mistakes.
You have to try and try again and eliminate your mistakes; find the effective solution to solve your adversities and then a day would come when you would achieve success.
Great minds rise above adversities and unhappiness .You have to rise above your failure or defeat.
Nobody can stop a person in getting success, who keeps on attempting with his full vigour and best of his/her abilities.
‘Little minds are tamed and subdued by adversities and unhappiness, but great minds rise above it.” You have to rise above your failure or defeat.
You have to balance for fall prevention.
Be blessed always in all the ways
Top Banking coaching in BBSR – PLANET VIDYA for Ibps / Rrb, SBI, RBI, LIC,
Banking coaching in Bhubaneswar / Cuttack
Banking has always remained as the backbone of the economy and so it provides a lot of opportunities for job aspirants. Apart from this, fair work culture, immense opportunities and charmful job, are enchanted one to think seriously about the Banking.
Suitable guidelines and proper practice are the essential for success in Bank Exams
In our view, to a great extent the Coaching Institutes’ helps in getting success in Competitive Exams?
Study Materials and techniques provided by PlanetVidya Institutes are extensive and complete which improves your timing and accuracy in exams.
PlanetVidya is a well- known as it has been providing exceptional results for many years.
PlanetVidya (since 1999) is one old yet good coaching institute, has highly qualified ( so friendly ) experts having vast experience and knowledge regarding the competitive exams. They are to push you, challenge you and make sure you extend yourself beyond where you are now.
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Planet Vidya – Banking Training Programme 2022-2023
For Bank Exams – IBPS PO / Clerk .RRB – SBI PO / Clerk . RBI Exams. Other Bank . Insurance . LIC Assistant / ADO. Exams. ( Graduates in any discipline can apply )
Only the time plays an important role in the Banking Examination. The aspirants have to solve the questions correctly using quicker and less cumbersome method.
Good preparation strategy, continuous smart hard work leads to success.
Always stick to the syllabus : Aspirants should understand and follow the exam pattern well, know the Ins and Outs of the Exam. , and get good marks.
It has been proved that if you prepare intelligently and wisely, it will bring you sure success.
Duration maximum 6 months with Life Time Support. (Free Lifetime Membership)
By Highly Educated & long and widely experienced, friendly teachers.
Free : Study Material, All Tests, Online Test with discussion by expert teachers, library, Doubt Clearing etc Since 1999
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Bank PO / Officer :
Organized by: RBI / IBPS / SBI / Other Banks
The exam consists of Preliminary Exam, Main Exam, and Interview.
1.Preliminary Exam: Three section as Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and English Language.
- 2. Main Exam: Five section as Data Analysis & Interpretation, General/Economy/Banking Awareness, Reasoning & Computer Aptitude and English language including Essay writing.
- 3. Interview:
Banks: Clerk / Assistant
Organized by: RBI / IBPS / SBI / SIDBI / NABARD / Other Banks
The Clerk exam is consist of Preliminary Exam and Main Exam.
1.Preliminary Exam: Consists of Numerical Ability, Reasoning, and English language.
2.Main Exam: Consists of Numerical Ability, Reasoning, and English language, General Awareness and Computer Knowledge.
- There will be no interview.
It has been proved that if you prepare intelligently and wisely, it will bring you sure success
New Complete Banking Exam Pattern 2020 in detail
SBI Recruitment 2020
Planet Vidya
SBI Clerk-2022 Selection Process
The selection procedure of SBI Clerk Recruitment consists of 3 different stages as mentioned below:
Stage 1: SBI Clerk Preliminary Exam
Stage2: SBI Clerk Main Exam
Stage3: SBI Clerk Document Verification & Test of Local Language
( Those who qualify for selection and produce 10th or 12th standard mark sheet/ certificate evidencing having studied the specified opted local language will not be subjected to any Language test. )
Selection Procedure
Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:
The SBI Clerk Preliminary exam ( Online ) is of 60 minutes duration (separately-timed) for Objective Tests for 100 marks and has three sections as tabulated below.
|
Sl. |
Name of Test | No. of Questions | Max. Marks | Duration |
| 1. | English language | 30 | 30 | 20 min. |
| 2. | Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 min. |
| 3. | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 min. |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 1 Hour |
Note: 1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Phase-II : Main Examination:
The SBI Clerk Main exam ( Online ) is of 2hour 40 minutes duration (separately-timed) for Objective Tests for 200 marks and has 4 sections as tabulated below.
| Sl. | Name of Test | No. of Questions | Max. Marks | Duration |
| 1. | General/ Financial Awareness | 50 | 50 | 35 min. |
| 2. | General English | 40 | 40 | 35 min. |
| 3. | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 | 45 min. |
| 4. | Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude | 50 | 60 | 45 min. |
| Total | 190 | 200 | 2 Hr. 40 min. |
Note: 1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
SBI Clerk 202 – Local Language Test
If you have studied the official (local) language or local level at 10th level and have proof as a certificate, you will not be subject to an additional Language Test. If not so, you will be required to take a language test which will be conducted after provisional selection but before joining.
SBI Clerk 2020 : Final Selection
Final merit list will be prepared based on the marks obtained in the SBI Clerk Main exam. The marks obtained in prelims exam will not be added towards the final selection. Merit List will be drawn state wise & category wise.
New Banking Exam Pattern 2022
SBI Recruitment 2022
SBI PO / Officer -2022 Selection Process
The selection procedure of SBI PO Recruitment consists of 3 different stages as mentioned below:
Stage 1: SBI PO Preliminary Exam
Stage 2: SBI PO Main Exam and Descriptive Test
Stage 3: Group Exercise and Interview
Selection Procedure
Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:
The SBI PO Preliminary exam ( Online ) is of 60 minutes duration (separately-timed) for Objective Tests for 100 marks and has three sections as tabulated below.
|
Sl. |
Name of Test | No. of Questions | Max. Marks | Duration |
| 1. | English language | 30 | 30 | 20 min. |
| 2. | Quantitative Aptitude | 35 | 35 | 20 min. |
| 3. | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 min. |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 1 Hour |
Note: 1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Phase-II : Main Examination and Descriptive Test
( Total 250 marks )
Main Examination ( Online modes ) will consist of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 50 marks.
(i) Objective Test:
The SBI PO Main exam ( Online ) is of 3hours duration (separately-timed) for Objective Tests for 200 marks and has 4 sections as tabulated below.
| S.No. | Name of Tests (Objective) |
No. of Questions |
Maximum Marks |
Duration |
| 1 | Reasoning and Computer Aptitude |
45 | 60 | 60 minutes |
| 2 | Data Analysis & Interpretation |
35 | 60 | 45 minutes |
| 3 | General/Economy/ Banking Awareness |
40 | 40 | 35 minutes |
| 4 | English Language | 35 | 40 | 40 minutes |
| Total | 155 | 200 | 180 minutes |
Note: 1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
(ii) Descriptive Test:
The Descriptive Test of 30 minutes duration with two questions for 50 marks will be a Test of English Language (Letter Writing & Essay).
Phase-III: Group Exercises (20 marks) & Interview (30 marks)
SBI PO 2020 : Final Selection
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination (Phase-I) will not be added for preparing the final merit list for selection. Only the marks obtained in Main Examination (Phase-II), both in the Objective Test and the Descriptive Test, will be added to the marks obtained in GE & Interview (Phase-III) for preparing the final merit list.
The candidates will have to qualify both in Phase-II and Phase-III separately.
Marks secured by the candidates in the Main Examination (out of 250 marks) are converted to out of 75 marks and Group Exercises & Interview scores of candidate (out of 50 marks) are converted to out of 25 marks. The final merit list is arrived at after aggregating (out of 100) converted marks of Main Examination and Group Exercises & Interview.
Selection will be made from the top merit ranked candidates in each category.
Results of the candidates who qualify for Main Examination and Group Exercise & Interview as well as the final select list will be made available on the Bank’s website.
IBPS PO 2022 Selection Process
IBPS Recruitment 2022
IBPS (Institute of Banking Personnel Selection ) is the recruitment body that selects suitable candidates for various vacancies at various banks in India, for four different posts namely
(1) Probationary Officer, (2) Clerk, (3) Regional Rural Banks Officers Scale I, II, III, Office Assistant and (4) Specialist Officer for HR, Law, IT, Marketing, Management and Agricultural Field Officer.
IBPS regularly conducts recruitment drives to select the best candidates for the available position.
The full list of banking jobs and recruitment exams for various posts such as clerk, assistant, probationary officer and specialist officer careers.
IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk, IBPS SO
Planet Vidya IBPS
Participating Organisation:-
Allahabad Bank, Canara Bank, Indian Overseas Bank (IOB), Syndicate Bank, Andhra Bank, Central Bank of India (CBI), Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC), UCO Bank, Bank of Baroda (BOB), Corporation Bank, Punjab National Bank (PNB), Union Bank of India (UBI), Bank of India Indian, Bank Punjab & Sind Bank, United Bank of India, Bank of Maharashtra (BOM)
IBPS 2022 Selection Process
IBPS PO : Click to View [ Download PDF ] IBPS PO, Planet Vidya
IBPS Clerk : Click to View [ Download PDF ] IBPS_CLERK, Planet Vidya
IBPS SO : Click to View [ Download PDF ] IBPS Specialist Officer for HR, Law, IT, Marketing, Management and Agricultural Field Officer Planet Vidya
IBPS RRB Exams ( Officers / Office Assistants )
Planet Vidya IBPS RRB
Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank , Andhra Pragathi Gramin Bank, Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank, Aryavart Bank , Assam Gramin Vikash Bank, Bangiya Gramin Vikash Bank, Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank , Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank , Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank , Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank , Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank , Dakshin Bihar Gramin Bank , Ellaquai Dehati Bank , Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank , J & K Grameen Bank , Jharkhand Rajya Gramin Bank , Karnataka Gramin Bank , Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank , Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank , Kerala Gramin Bank , Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank , Madhyanchal Gramin Bank, Maharashtra Gramin Bank , Manipur Rural Bank , Meghalaya Rural Bank, Mizoram Rural Bank , Nagaland Rural Bank , Odisha Gramya Bank , Paschim Banga Gramin Bank , Prathama UP Gramin Bank , Puduvai Bharathiar Grama Bank , Punjab Gramin Bank , Purvanchal Bank , Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank , Saptagiri Grameena Bank , Sarva Haryana Gramin Bank , Saurashtra Gramin Bank , Tamil Nadu Grama Bank , Telangana Grameena Bank , Tripura Gramin Bank , Utkal Grameen Bank , Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank , Uttarakhand Gramin Bank , Uttarbanga Kshetriya Gramin Bank , Vidharbha Konkan Gramin Bank
IBPS RRB 2022 Selection Process
Click to View [ Download PDF ] RRB, IBPS , Planet Vidya
Complete Syllabus for New Pattern of Bank Exams
The syllabus and pattern are almost same for all the bank job exams, designed to assess the candidate’s general knowledge as well as aptitude skills.
- English Language
- General/Banking/Economy Awareness
- Reasoning Ability
- Quantitative Aptitude
- Computer Knowledge
Complete details below:
English Langage
- Reading Comprehension
- Synonyms
- Antonyms
- Sentence Completion
- Similar Substitution
- Correct Usage Of Preposition
- Sentence Improvement
- Spotting The Errors
- Spelling Test
- One Word Substitution
- Cloze Test
- Para Jumbles
- Idioms And Phrases
General/Banking/Economy Awareness
Prepare the current affairs for the last 6 months .
- History Of “ Banking and its Development “
- Rbi & Its Monetary Policies
- Banking Term/ Terminology
- Banking Product & Services
- Micro Finance & Economics
- Foreign Trade
- Socio-Eco-Political Environment Of India
- Appointment/ Election/ Resignation
- Events/ Organisation / Summits
- CURRENT AFFAIRS
- General & Financial Awareness
- AWARDS AND HONOURS
- BOOKS AND AUTHORS
- SPORTS AND GAMES
- SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
- CURRENT BANKING
Reasoning Ability
- Classification
- Series
- Analogy
- Alphabet Test
- Coding – Decoding
- Blood Relation
- Direction And Distance
- Time, Sequence & Ranking Test Sitting Arrangement
- Analytical Puzzle
- Venn Diagrams
- Syllogism
- Symbols & Codes
- Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzle
- Input-Output
- Mathematical Operations
- Clock And Calendar
- Data Sufficiency Statement & Conclusion (Mathematical)
- Statement & Conclusion (Logical)
- Passage Based Conclusion
- Cube & Dice
- Non-Verbal Reasoning
- Admission Test
Computer Knowledge / MARKETING APTITUDE
- Computer Fundamental/ Binary System/ Operating System
- Ms Office/ Commands And Shortcut Keys
- Softwares/ Programming
- Internet, Networking And Computer Abbreviations
- Fundamentals Of Marketing,
- Product And Branding
- Market Situations Based On Price,
- Distribution, Promotion And
- Advertising
- Market Segmentation,Targeting And Positioning
- Modern Marketing
- Marketing In Banking Industry
- Marketing Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude
- Number System
- Lcm, Hcf and Fraction
- Square, Cube, Indices & Surds
- Simplification
- Average
- Percentage
- Ratio & Proportion
- Alligation or Mixture
- Profit, Loss & Discount
- Simple Interest
- Compound Interest
- Distance, Speed And Time
- Time & Work / Pipe & Cistern
- Problem Based On Ages
- Permutation & Combination
- Probability
- Area And Perimeter
- Volume And Surface Area
- Geometry
- Number Series
- Data Sufficiency
- Data Interpretation (Table, Line, Bar, Graph, Caselets )
From Experts one can learn strong fundamental concepts and short tricks for solving problems on Time.
Bank Exam New Pattern – 2022
Bank Exam New Pattern Model Questions ( Predicted Question Bank ) – 2022
Section – Test I : English Language
Directions (Q.1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given right of it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
There are various sectors in India that are to be assessed for their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.
The total population is over 1 billion, which will increase to 1.46 billion by 2035 to cross China. The huge population will result in higher unemployment and deterioration of quality. Literacy in India is yet another factor to be discussed. According to the 1991 Census, 64.8% of the population was illiterate. The major downtrend of education is due to child labour, which has spread all over India, and this should be totally eradicated by way of surveillance and a good educational system implemented properly by the Government.
Pollution is one more threat to the environment and for the country’s prospects. This has been experienced more in urban areas, mainly in metropolitan cities. The water pollution by the sewage seepage into the ground water and improper maintenance will lead to various diseases, which in turn will affect the next generation. In most of the cities there is no proper sewage disposal. The Government has to take effective steps to control population, which, in turn, will minimize the pollution.
Poverty questions the entire strength of India’s political view and minimises the energetic way of approach. The shortfall of rains, enormous floods, unexpected famine, drought, earthquake and the recent tsunami hit the country in a negative way. The proactive approach through effective research and analytical study helps us to determine the effects in advance. Proper allocation of funds is a prerequisite. In developed countries like the US and Japan, precautionary methods are adopted to overcome this, but it has to be improved a lot in our systems.
Increased population is one of the major reasons for poverty and the Government is unable to allocate funds for basic needs to the society. India has nearly 400 million people living below the poverty line and 90% of active population is in informal economy. The children are forced to work due to their poverty and differential caste system. They work in match industry for daily wages, as servants, mechanics, stone breakers, agricultural workers, etc. To prevent child labour, existing laws which favour the Anti Child Labour Act should be implemented by the Government vigorously.
More population results in cheap cost by virtue of the demand-supply concept. Most of the foreign countries try to utilise this factor by outsourcing their business in India with a very low capital. According to the US, India is a “knowledge pool” with cheap labour. The major advantage is pur communication and technical skill, which is adaptable to any environment. The cutting-edge skill in IT of our professionals helps the outsourcing companies to commensurate with the needs of the consumers in a short span. The major competitors for India are China and Philippines and by the way of an effective communication and expert technical ability, Indians are ahead of the race. The major metropolitan states are targeting the outsourcing field vigorously by giving various amenities to the outsourcing companies like tax concession, allotting land, etc, to start their businesses in their cities without any hurdles. Thereby most of the MNCs prefer India as their destinations and capitalise the resources to maximise their assets. Infrastructure is another key factor for an outsourcing company to start a business in a particular city. It includes road, rail, ports, power and water. The increased input in infrastructure in India is very limited where China’s record is excellent.
India in earlier days gave more importance to the development of Industry and less importance to other departments. But the scenario has quite changed nowadays by allocating a special budget of funds for security. This is because of the frightening increase in terrorism all around the world, especially emerging after the 9/1 I terror attack in the US. In the last ten years, budget towards the development of military forces is higher when compared to others. It shows that the threat from our neighbouring countries is escalating. India has to concentrate more on this security factor to wipe out the problem in the way of cross-border terrorism.
Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress rapidly. To quote China as an example is that they demolished an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent for the development and welfare of the country. India’s vision for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or speech, but extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the pitfalls.
1. Why, according to the author, has the Indian Government allotted more funds to strengthen the military forces ?
A) To improve security in order to counter increasing terrorism B) As the security in India over the past ten years was grossly inadequate
C) As the US too has strengthened its military forces after the 9/11 attack
D) As the industry is developed enough and is not in need of any more funds E) None of these
2. What is the author’s main objective in writing this passage ?
A) To exhort the Government to gamer support from its neighbouring countries
B) To suggest to the Government to follow China’s example blindly, thereby bringing about rapid development C) To highlight the plight of the poor
D) To discuss the problems of child labour and suggest suitable remedies
E) To bring forth the problems associated with India’s development and to suggest measures to counter them
3. Why, according to the author, is India one of the favourite destinations for investment by outsourcing companies ?
(A) Shorter response time for clients
(B) Better technical skills.
(C) Availability of cheap labour.
A) Only (C) B) AII (A), (B) and (C) C) Only (B) and (C) D) Only (A) and (B) E) Only (A)
4. Which of the following is/are the facility(ies) available to MNCs investing in India ?
(A) Easy availability of land
(B) Better infrastructure than China
(C) Tax concessions
A) Only (C) B) Only (A) and (B) C) All (A), (B) and (C) D) Only (A) and (C) E) None of these
5. How, according to the author, can the effects of floods, famines, droughts etc be minimised?
A) By limiting pollution, thereby reducing the chances of such events taking place
B) By educating the children about the ill-effects of such calamities who in turn will help during the time of need
C) By following the US system of providing relief to its citizens
D) By allotting proper funds for research which can predict the outcome of such calamities and thus design relief measures E) None of these
6. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
SURVEILIANCE
A) spying B) cameras C) observation D) alertness E) security
7. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
PROSPECTS
A) assimilation B) demand C) brochure D) diagnosis E) future
8. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
COMMENSURATE
A) match B) extracting C) request D) employing E) contemplating
9. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
DIFFERENTIAL
A) solitude B) unique C) homogeneous D) synonymous E) different
10. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
VIGOROUSLY
A) simply B) regularly C) roughly D) softly E) leniently
Directions (Q. 11-15): Fill up the blanks with the most suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.
11. Unless your father gives his , you must not climb the steep .
A) permission, high B) orders, peak C) assent, ascent D) permit, height E) allow, top
12. Unless you suggest an , we shall attend the meetings on Fridays.
A) option, every B) advise, all C) alternative, alternate D) optional, alternating E) way, no
13. The workmen will when they hear that we must with their services.
A) disperse, dispense B) leave, rusticate C) revolt, depart D) pleased, reward E) satisfy, continue
14. There was an of snow last winter, which made our impossible.
A) abundant, approach B) excess, access C) array, reach D) abundance, arrive E) abnormal, ways
15. Choose your specimens ; do not make a choice.
A) carefully, haphazard B) normally, absurd C) secret, open D) willingly, hazardous E) in order, random
Djrections (Q. 16-20): In each question on right a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. One of these four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the boldly printed words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark ’All Correct’, as your answer.
16. In order to curtale the substantial export of iron ore recently the government has imposed an export tax.
A) curtale B) substantial C) recently D) imposed E) AlI correct
17. Several mediam and small sized companies successfully survived the global financial crisis of 2008.
A) Several B) mediam C) sized D) survived E) All correct
18. One of the tangible benefits of appearing for a loan under this scheme is the interest rate concessions.
A) tangible B) benefits C) appearing D) concessions E) AlI correct
19. With effect from April, non-banking finance companies with good performances may be granted licences to convert into banks.
A) effect B) performances C) granted D) convert E) All correct
20. In 2016, the largest remittances sent to India were from oversees Indians living in North America.
A) largest B) remittances C) oversees D) living E) All correct
Directions (21-25): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
It is summed up in a single word-Man. Man is the only real enemy we have. Remove man from the 21 and the root cause of hunger and 22 is abolished forever.
Man is the only creature that consumes without 23 . He does not give milk. He does not lay eggs, he is too weak to pull the plough, he cannot run fast enough to catch rabbits. 24 he is lord of all the animals. He sets them to work, he gives back to them the bare minimum that will prevent them from 25 and the rest he keeps for himself.
21. A) area B) scene C) place D) light E) world
22. A) overwork B) work C) waste D) while E) poverty
23. A) drinking B) producing C) eating D) sleeping E) working
24. A) Yet B) But C) Then D) Thus E) Therefore
25. A) producing B) creating C) eating D) starving E) working
Directions (Q. 26-30): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given on right.
(A) With all the bid information being available and tracked online, corruption has considerably reduced.
(B) Today, most, ie over ninety-five per cent, households, in the city enjoy broadband connection.
(C) All city contracts are now bid for online.
(D) Over twenty years ago the city government, Central Government and the private sector made a concerted effort to shift the economy to include IT.
(E) As our cities do expand and become more complex, such a system will make governance more manageable
(F) This level of connectedness has changed not only the city’s economy but also how it is governed and how business is conducted.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
27. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
28. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
A) B B) C C) D D) E E) F
29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
A) A B) C C) D D) E E) F
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) F
Section – Test II : Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given on right:
A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are eight persons of a family. There are three married couples in the family. The persons are from three generations. There are no unmarried females in the family.
B and A are off springs of D while G and H are off springs of E and C respectively. F is the wife of D. C is one of the females and she is not the wife of A. Among them there are three doctors, two engineers, two authors and one painter. Each person has only one occupation. One day all the persons sit around a round table looking towards the centre to solve a puzzle which was asked recently in the examination for IBPS PO. They sit in such a manner that only the grandson of D is between C and A, while only E is between B and F. Only one person is between C and B but it is not H. G, who is not next to B, is not sitting opposite D. While B is not sitting opposite a female. One of the sons of D is on the immediate left of D. The persons who are next to E are neither engineer nor doctor. The persons who are on the immediate left of G and immediate right of B are not doctors white H is a renowned painter.
1. The only person who is sitting between B and C is a/an
A) engineer B) doctor C) author D) painter E) Can’t say
2. The two females who are sitting adjacent to each other are
A) C and E B) C and A C) E and C D) It is not possible E) None of these
3. The only male who is sitting opposite a female is a/an
A) engineer B) doctor C) author D) painter E) Can’t say
4. H is between which two persons ?
A) A and C B) C and B C) A and F D) Can’t say E) None of these
5. Who among the following is/are not a doctor ?
A) Son of D B) Mother of G C) One of the grandsons of F who is B’s son D) Data inadequate E) All of the above
Directions (Q. 6-10): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
T 6 # I J 1 % L E 3 K 9 @ A H 7 B © D 2 U $ R 4 * 8
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
A) JI1 B) EL3 C) @9A D) 7HB E) R4$
7. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ? 6IJ %E3 9AH ?
A) B©2 B) 7©D C) BD2 D) 7BD E) None of these
8. If all the vowels are removed from the above arrangement which element will be sixth to the right of fourth element from the left ?
A) 9 B) K C) 3 D) @ E) None of these
9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number?
A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three
10. Which element is fifth to the right of eleventh from the right end ?
A) $ B) U C) 1 D) 3 E) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements arc followed by two conclusions. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
11. Statements : F < R ≥ O = M ≤ T = K Conclusions: I. K ≥ O II. F < M
A) Only conclusion I is true. B) Only conclusion II is true. C) Either conclusion I or II is true. D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E) Both conclusions I and II are true.
12. Statements: G = N ≤ O ≥ P > Q = R Conclusions: I. O > R II. P ≤ G
A) Only conclusion I is true. B) Only conclusion II is true. C) Either conclusion I or II is true. D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E) Both conclusions I and II are true.
13. Statements: F < O = L ≤ W = S Conclusions: I. W ≤ F II. O ≥ S
A) Only conclusion I is true. B) Either conclusion I or II is true. C) Only conclusion II is true. D) Both conclusions I and II are true.
E) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
14. Statements: B = R ≥ T < O = P ≥ S Conclusions: I. B < P II. T < S
A) Only conclusion I is true. B) Only conclusion II is true. C) Either conclusion I or II is true. D) Both conclusions I and II are true.
E) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
15. Statements: P> Q ≥ A < R = I Conclusions: I. A < P II. I > A
A) Only conclusion I is true. B) Only conclusion II is true. C) Both conclusions I and II are true. D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E) Either conclusion I or II is true.
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digits and symbols numbered. The letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. The serial number of the combination that correctly represents the group of letters is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct your answer is ‘None of these’.
Letter : H I T K R F A L E M J B Q U
Digit/Symbol: 3 7 % # 4 $ 6 9 @ ↑ 2 5 © 8
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter in the group is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter in the group is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded by the code for vowel.
(iii) If the first as well as the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded by the code for first letter.
16. IRHMEJ
A) 743↑@2
17. TFIKAR B) 243↑@2 C) 243↑@7 D) 743↑@7 E) None of these
A) 4$7#6%
18. MHEJKQ B) %$7#6% C) 4$7#64 D) %$6#74 E) None of these
A) ©3@2#↑
19. FIKLRU B) ↑3@2#↑ C) ©3@2#@ D) ↑3@2#© E) None of these
A) $7#948 B) 87#948 C) $7#94$ D) 87#94$ E) None of these
20. ALFJHE
A) @9$236 B) @9$23@ C) 69$236 D) 69$23@ E) None of these
21. In a group of five friends A, B, C, D and E, ’B’ is younger to ’C’ but elder to ’A’. If they are arranged in ascending order of age, then’ D’ gets fifth rank, who is the youngest in age?
A) B B) A C) Either E or C D) Only C E) None of these
22. If ‘A ÷ B’ means ’A is brother of B’, ’A – B’ means ’A is father of B’, ’A + B’ means ’B is sister of A’ and ’A x B’ means ’A is grandfather of B’, which of the following means ’L is niece of M’?
A) M ÷ P – N B) M ÷ P – N + L C) L + N – P + M D) M + N – L E) None of these
Directions (Q. 23-27): In each question on right are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which he given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
23. Statements: a. All boxes are toys. b. All toys are books. c. All books are copies.
Conclusions: I. All boxes are books. II. All toys are copies. III. Some copies are not toys. IV. Some books are not boxes.
A) Only I and II follow B) AII follow C) Only III and IV follow D) Only I and II and either III or IV follow E) None of these
24. Statements: a. No bicycles are scooters. b. No scooters are motorcycles. c. No motorcycles are cars.
Conclusions: I. No bicycles are motorcycles. II. No scooters are bicycles. III. No scooters are cars. IV. No cars are bicycles.
A) Only II follows B) Only II and III follow C) Only II, III and IV follow D) AII follow E) None of these
25. Statements: a. Some mats are caps. b. Some caps are huts. c. Some huts are citadels.
Conclusions: I. Some caps are not mats. II. Some huts are not caps. III. Some mats are huts. IV. Some caps are citadels.
A) Only I follows B) Only I, II and III follow C) AIl follow D) Only I and II follow E) None of these
26. Statements: a. Some books are not toys. b. No toys are bulbs. c. All bulbs are flowers.
Conclusions: I. Some bulbs are not books. II. Some books are not flowers. III. Some books are flowers. IV. Some flowers are not books.
A) AIl follow B) None follows C) Only either II or III follows D) Only I, IV and either II or III follow E) None of these
27. Statement: a. Some trains are engines. b. No engines are stations. c. All stations are junctions.
Conclusions: I. Some stations are not engines. II. Some engines are not stations. III. Some junctions are not engines. IV. Some junctions are not stations.
A) All follow B) Only I and II follow C) Only I, II and III follow D) Only 11, III and IV follow E) None of these Directions (Q. 28-29): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language,
’telephone lines are busy’ is written as ’vk jd ba ef ’ ‘draw two parallel lines’ is written as ’qn vk hi om’ ’busy people never draw’ is written as ’tx ba su hi’ ’two lines are intersecting’ is written as ’mi om jd vk’ (All codes are two letter codes only)
28. Which may be the possible code for ‘lines intersecting together’ in the given code language ?
A) mi vk ef B) jd om cz C) vk om cz D) cz mi vk E) mi cz hi
29. What will be the code for ‘draw parallel’ in the given code language ?
A) mi qn B) jd mi C) qn hi D) hi om E) Other than those given as options
30. Bus for Puri is after every hour from 7.30 am to 12.30 pm but after that it is after everyone and half hours gap. One bus has gone half an hour ago, Vilas was told by a depot clerk at 5.30 pm. When was the next bus scheduled?
A) 6 pm B) 7 pm C) 7.30 pm D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Seven neighbours S, P, L, Q, R, M and I live on different floors in the same building having seven floors numbered one to seven. (The first floor is numbered one, the floor above it, is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as seven.) Three persons live between I and M. M lives on the floor above S, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor. P neither lives on an odd numbered nor on topmost floor. R does not live on the first floor. Two persons live between I and S. Q lives neither on the first floor nor on the third floor
31. Who lives on the floor just above M ?
A) I B) P C) Q D) R E) None of these
32. How many persons live between L and P ?
A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) Can’t be determined
33. Which of the following pairs live on the first floor and the topmost floor respectively ?
A) L, Q B) Q, P C) I, Q D) L, I E) Can’t be determined
34. Who among the following lives on the topmost floor ?
A) I B) Q C) P D) L E) None of these
35. Which of the following combinations is true ?
A) First floor-S B) Fourth floor-R C) Third floor-M D) Sixth floor-I E) None of the above
Section – Test III : Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. 1- 5): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
Directions (Q. 1- 5): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
1. 20.2 x 64 x 81.3 x 40.2 = 8?
A) 2.7 B) 2.5 C) 3.7 D) 3.2 E) None of these
2. 3 1/2 + 5 1/6 + 2 1/3 + 6 1/12 + 4 1/3 + 1/20 = ?
A) 22 B) 23 C) 24 D) 25 E) None of these
3. 83% of 6242 x 12% of 225 = ?
A) 146286.42 B) 134263.18 C) 139883.22 D) 1562218.23 E) None of these
4. ? ÷ 25 ÷ 12 = 248.76
A) 74628 B) 497.52 C) 67452 D) 870.66 E) None of these
5. 27910 + 4187 + 5879 + ? = 57789
A) 18000 B) 19000 C) 20000 D) 21000 E) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following graph care-fully and answer the questions given below: Total number of Arts, Science and Commerce students in various Colleges-(in thousands) in 2016
6. How many candidates (in thousands) have taken Commerce from all the colleges ? A) 165 B) 177 C) 185 D) 193 E) 199
7. The number of students taking Arts in college B is how many thousand fewer than the number of students taking Arts in college A and college C together?
A) 12.5 B) 27.5 C) 50 D) 10 E) 62.5
8. What is the average number of students (in thousands) taking up Science from all the six colleges together ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
A) 44.90 B) 43.33 C) 51.33 D) 49.90 E) 48.88
9. What is the ratio of the number of students taking Science to the number of students taking Arts in college D?
A) 14 : 19 B) 12 : 17 C) 17 : 19 D) 19 : 14 E) 13 : 18
10. In college F, the students taking Commerce is what per cent of the total number of students taking Arts, Science and Commerce in all ?
A) 45 B) 55 C) 59 D) 70 E) 25
Directions (Q. 11-15): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
11. 3 4 12 ? 576 27648
A) 64 B) 96 C) 52 D) 36 E) None of these
12. 89250 17850 7140 1428 571.2 ?
A) 228.48 B) 126.12 C) 114.24 D) 246.48 E) None of these
13. 6 349 565 ? 754 781
A) 629 B) 590 C) 601 D) 690 E) None of these
14. 1.5 4 20 129 ? 10505
A) 1044 B) 1048 C) 1548 D) 1052 E) None of these
15. 4 12 60 420 ? 60060
A) 4620 B) 3780 C) 4200 D) 5040 E) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
16. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) + (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
A) 13.5 B) 4.5 C) 16.5 D) 7.5 E) 10.5
17. (621.52)2 = ?
A) 386300 B) 365300 C) 379300 D) 356300 E) 398300
18. 561204 x 58 = ? x 55555
A) 606 B) 646 C) 556 D) 716 E) 586
19. (444% of 531) ÷ 972 = ?
A) 4.5 B) 0.5 C) 2.5 D) 8.5 E) 6.5
20. 459.008 + 3.0056 x 88.862 = ?
A) 738 B) 725 C) 695 D) 752 E) 666
21. The weight of a metal block of size 10 cm by 8 cm by 6 cm is 9 kg. The weight of a same metal block of the size 20 cm by 4 cm by 3 cm is
A) 8.6 kg B) 8.9 kg C) 5.6 kg D) 4.5 kg E) None of these
22. The price of paint is Rs 120 per kg. One kg paint covers 25 square feet. How much will it cost to paint the inner walls and the ceiling of a room of side 10 feet each?
A) Rs 2880 B) Rs 3000 C) Rs 1500 D) Rs 1440 E) None of these
23. If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each separately, the products so obtained are 2418 and 3666. The difference of The numbers is
A) 16 B) 18 C) 4 D) 61 E) 100
24. Two-thirds of three-fourths of one-seventh of a number is 8. What is 50 per cent of that number?
A) 65 B) 60 C) 53 D) 59 E) None of these
25. If the difference between the simple interest and compound interest earned on an amount @ 15 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years is Rs 595.35, what is the amount?
A) Rs 8,400 B) Rs 9,200 C) Rs 6,800 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
26. The average of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two women aged 35 years and 45 years are substituted by two men. What will be the average age of these two men?
A) 50 yrs B) 48 yrs C) 35 yrs D) 49 yrs E) None of these
27. The difference between a discount of 40% on Rs 500 and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% on the same amount is
A) 0 B) Rs 1.93 C) Rs 2 D) Rs 7.20 E) None of these
28. The percentage marks obtained by Sushama in History and Maths is 60. If she got 90 marks out of 150 in Maths, then out of 1 00 the marks obtained by Sushama in History is
A) 40 B) 30 C) 50 D) 60 E) None of these
29. P and Q are two different integers divisible by 3. Which of the following statements is not necessarily true?
A) P + Q is divisible by 3. B) P – Q is divisible by 3. C) PQ is divisible by 9. D) P2 + Q2 is divisible by 9. E) P2 – Q2 is divisible by 6.
30. How many seven-digit numbers can be made from the number 3428651, using each digit only once?
A) 49 B) 180 C) 5040 D) 2520 E) None of these
31. A train reaches its destination 15 minutes early if it travels at 40 kmph and 15 minutes late if it travels at 30 kmph. What is the length of the journey?
A) 66 km B) 80 km C) 120 km D) None of these E) Data insufficient
32. The difference between the greatest and the smallest four-digit numbers formed by using digits 0, 1, 2 and 3 (without repetition of digits) is
A) 1980 B) 2178 C) 2287 D) 3087 E) None of these
33. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two-digit number is greater than the original number by 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 13, what is the original number?
A) 58 B) 76 C) 78 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
34. Jack bought two fans for Rs 720. By selling one of them, say Fan A, at a profit of 15% and the other, say Fan B, at a loss of 12%, he found that he neither gained nor lost on the whole. The cost prices of the fans A and B are
A) Rs 320 and Rs 400 respectively B) Rs 300 and Rs 420 respectively C) Rs 285 and Rs 435 respectively D) Rs 270 and Rs 450 respectively
E) None of these
35. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. The same work can be completed by 8 women in 72 days, whereas 24 children take 32 days to complete it. If 10 men, 15 women and 24 children work together, in how many days can the work be completed?
A) 18 B) 8 C) 22 D) 12 E) None of these
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Data Interpretation –
(Predicted Question Bank)
For Competitive Exams like
IBPS | SSC CGL | IBPS PO | SBI PO | SBI Clerk | SSC CHSL | CDS | POLICE | LIC AAO | Railway RRB |
And OAS, Odisha Police SI, OSSC, OPSC, OSSSC, SSC
Directions (Q.1-5): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Monthly Bill (in Rs) landline phone, electricity, Laundry & mobile phone paid, by 3 people in 5 months
| Monthly Bills | ||||||||||||
| Month | Landline Phone | Electricity | Laundry | Mobile Phone | ||||||||
| Litu | Aswi | Babu | Litu | Aswi | Babu | Litu | Aswi | Babu | Litu | Aswi | Babu | |
| March | 234 | 190 | 113 | 145 | 245 | 315 | 93 | 323 | 65 | 144 | 234 | 345 |
| April | 124 | 234 | 321 | 270 | 220 | 135 | 151 | 134 | 35 | 164 | 221 | 325 |
| May | 156 | 432 | 211 | 86 | 150 | 98 | 232 | 442 | 132 | 143 | 532 | 332 |
| June | 87 | 123 | 124 | 124 | 150 | 116 | 213 | 324 | 184 | 245 | 134 | 125 |
| July | 221 | 104 | 156 | 235 | 103 | 131 | 143 | 532 | 143 | 324 | 432 | 543 |
- What is the total amount of bill paid by Aswi in the month of June for all the four commodities ?
1) Rs. 608 2) Rs. 763 3) Rs. 731 4) Rs. 683 5) Rs. 674
- What is the average electricity bill paid by Babu over all . the five months together?
1) Rs. 183 2) Rs. 149 3) Rs. 159 4) Rs. 178 5) Rs. 164
- What is the difference between the mobile phone bill paid by Litu in the month of May and the laundry bill paid by Aswi in the month of March ?
1) Rs.180 2) Rs. 176 3) Rs. 190 4) Rs. 167 5) Rs. 196
- In which months respectively did Babu pay the second highest mobile phone bill and the lowest electricity bill?
1) April and June 2) April and May 3) March and June 4) March and May 5) July and May
- What is the ratio of the electricity bill paid by Babu in the month of April to the mobile phone bill paid by Litu in the month of June?
1) 27 : 49 2) 27 : 65 3) 34 : 49 4) 135 : 184
Directions (Q.6-10): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Cost of three different fruits (in rupees per kg) in five different cities
- In which city is the difference between the cost of one kg of Atta and the cost of one kg of Amrut the second lowest?
1) Jalandhar 2) Delhi 3) Chandigarh 4) Hoshiarpur 5) Ropar
- What is the ratio of the cost of one kg of Atta from Ropar to the cost of one kg of Amba from Chandigarh?
1) 3 : 2 2) 2 : 3 3) 22 : 32 4) 4 : 9 5) 92 : 42
- What total amount will Rani pay to the shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kg of Atta and 2 kg of Amrut in Delhi?
1) Rs.530 2) Rs. 450 3) Rs. 570 4) Rs.620 5) Rs. 490
- Lucy had to purchase 45 kg of Amba from Hoshiarpur. The shopkeeper gave her a discount of 4% per kg. What amount did she pay to the shopkeeper after the discount?
1) Rs. 8208 2) Rs. 104 3) Rs. 8340 4) Rs. 8550 5) Rs. 8410
- The cost of one kg of Amrut in Jalandhar is approximately what per cent of the cost of two kg of Amba in Chandigarh?
1) 66 2) 24 3) 28 4) 34 5) 58
Directions (Q. 11 -15): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully to answer the questions that follow
- The number of petrol engine cars in BHUB is what per cent more than the number of diesel engine cars in SAMB ?
1) 100 2) 200 3) 300 4) 125 5) 225
- Find the difference between the total number of cars in BHUB and the number of petrol engine cars in KATA?
1) 96 2) 106 3) 112 4) 102 5) 98
- What is the average number of petrol engine cars in all the cities together?
1) 86.75 2) 89.25 3) 89.75 4) 86.25 5) 88.75
- What is the difference between the number of diesel engine cars in KATA and the number of petrol engine cars in PURI ?
1) 159 2) 21 3) 28 4) 34 5) 161
- If 25% of diesel engine cars in BHUB are AC and the remaining cars are non-AC, what is the number of diesel engine cars in BHUB which are non-AC?
1) 75 2) 45 3) 95 4) 105 5) 35
Directions (Q. 16 -20): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully to answer the questions given below: Preferences of people in playing different sports over the years
- What is the ratio of the number of people preferring to play Archery to the number of people preferring to play Soccer in the year 2019 ?
1) 14 : 17 2) 15 : 13 3) 15 : 11 4) 13 : 15 5) 17 : 14
- How many people (in millions) have preferred to play Archery in all the years together?
1) 2050 2) 2000 3) 1850 4) 1750 5) 1600
- In the year 2022 the people preferring to play Soccer is what per cent of the people preferring to play Archery, Golf and Soccer together in that year?
1) 25 2) 24
3) 21
4) 22
5) 23
- The number of people preferring to play Soccer in 2022 is how many million fewer than the number of people preferring to play Soccer in 2021?
1) 110 2) 105 3) 100 4) 95 5) 90
- From 2017 to 2022 the total number of people who preferred to play Golf was how much (in million)?
1) 1500 2) 1600 3) 1700 4) 1800 5) 1900
M Power G
Bank Exam New Pattern Model Questions ( Predicted Question Bank ) – 2023
Data Interpretation – 22
(Predicted Question Bank)
Directions (Q. 1-5): There are six electronics manufacturing companies which produce two types of mobile phones (4G and 5G). The total production cost of all six companies together is 80 crore rupees. The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the total production, and the table shows the ratio of production of 4G to 4G mobile and percent profit for these two types.
- What is the sum of the profit earned by Ericsson Company on 5G phones and that by Casio Company on 4G phones?
1) Rs. 224.8 lakh 2) Rs. 248.4 lakh 3) Rs. 262.4 lakh 4) Rs. 287.5 lakh 5) Rs. 320 lakh
- What is the ratio of the profit earned on 4G phones to that on 5G phones by Black Berry Company ?
1) 5 : 7 2) 12 : 25 3) 3 : 7 4) 3 : 5 5) None of these
- The profit earned by Dell Company on 5G phones is what per cent of the total production cost of Apple Company on 4G phones?
1) 7.5% 2) 10% 3) 12.5% 4) 15% 5) 17.5%
- What is the total production cost of 5G phones by Apple Company and Dell Company together?
1) 12.4 crore 2) 12.8 crore 3) 13.2 crore 4) 13.6 crore 5) 14 crore
- What is the total profit earned by Firefly Company for both 4G and 5G phones together?
1) Rs. 4.26 crore 2) Rs.4.64 crore 3) Rs.4.92 crore 4) Rs. 5.24 crore 5) Rs.5.84 crore
Directions (Q. 6-10): Stud)’ the given chart and table carefully to answer the given questions:
The graph shows the production of Sugar,,Salt, Spices and Soybeans in six different years
( Production in thousand tones ) % of the total production used under various heads
- In which year is the quantity of export the maximum?
1) 2017 2) 2018 3) 2019 4) 2020 5) 2021
- What is the ratio of the production of Spices to that of Salt over the six years?
1) 25 : 27 2) 23 : 25 3) 23 : 28 4) 23 : 27 5) 22 :27
- In which year is the quantity Online Stores supply the minimum ?
1) 2017 2) 2018 3) 2022 4) 2021 5) 2020
- In 2021 what is the difference between the amount of Online Stores supply and that used in export?
1) 53000 tonnes 2) 56000 tonnes 3) 54500 tonnes 4) 52500 tonnes 5) 59000 tonnes
- In which year is the production the minimum?
1) 2018 and 2020 2) 2021 3) 2022 4) 2019 and 2021 5) 2017
Directions (11-15): Study the following graphs carefully to answer the given questions
Time taken to travel (in hours) by six City Buses from May 1 to May 3 in 2023
- The distance travelled by City Bus F6 on May 3 in 2023 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on May I in 2023 ?
1) 95% 2) 92% 3) 91% 4) 98% 5) 96%
- What was the speed of City Bus C3 on May 2 in terms of metre per second?
1) 17.80 m/s 2) 17.5 m/s 3) 18 m/s 4) 17.88 m/s 5) 18.8 m/s
- What is the ratio of the speeds of City Bus E5 to City Bus F6 on May 2 in 2023 ?
1) 13 : 17 2) 13 : 15 3) 17 : 15 4) 19: : 17 5) None of these
- Which of the following City Bus travelled at the same speed on all three dates?
1) D4 2) A1 3) C3 4) E5 5) F6
- What was the difference between the speed of City Bus A1 on May 1 and the speed of City Bus D4 on May 2?
1) 7 kmph :2) 9 kmph 3) 7.5 kmph 4) 8.5 kmph 5) 8 kmph
(Q. 16-20):
: Directions (Q. 16-20) – The given line graph shows the total number of students of Planet Vidya Classes in different groups ( Online / Offline participants ) and the bar graphs show the percentage boys and the percentage of students in online mode in each group, respectively on 12th December, 2022
- The total number of girls of Group MP3 and Group Pv4 together is what percentage of the total number of students of Group Pv5 and Group Pv6 together?
1) 35 % 2) 45 % 3) 55 % 4) 65 % 5) 75 %
- The number of girls of Group MP1 is what percentage more than the number of boys of Group Pv5?
- 75 % 2) 60 % 3) 225 % 4) 80 % 5) 125%
- If the number of students in online mode of Group Pv6 decreases by 50 % and the number of students in offline mode of Group Pv6 increases by 100 %, what will be the ratio of the number online students to the number of offline students for Group Pv6?
1) 9:8 2) 3:8 3) 8:3 4) 3:2 5)2:1
- What is the average number of boys of all the six groups together?
1) 32 2) 35 3) 36 4) 36.5 5) 37.5
- What is the difference between the number of students in online mode and the number of students in offline mode of all the six groups?
1) 22 2) 23 3) 24 4) 25 5)
Directions (Q. 21-25): The following table shows the percentage Life Members (lifetime) of M Power Group, who belong to various Institutes under this group, and the percentage of members who have Master Degrees (MD) and the ratio of males to females in these Institutes. The total number of Life Members in the six Institutions of M Power Group is 40000 .
| Institutes | PV | MP | TPV | MPG | PVP | MPC |
| Life Members | 18% | 20% | 14% | 15% | 9% | 24% |
| % MD | 45% | 37% | 60% | 51% | 55% | 40% |
| Male : Female | 13 : 5 | 9 : 7 | 17 : 11 | 14 : 11 | 7 : 3 | 7 : 5 |
- The total number of Life Members in PV Institute who have Master Degrees (MD) is what percentage more than the total number of Female Life Members in that Institute?
1) 60 % 2) 62 % 3) 66 % 4) 66 % 5) 68 %
- What is the difference between the total number of Male Life Members and the total number of Female Life Members of M Power Group,?
1) 8480 2) 8960 3) 9540 4) 9360 5) None of these
- What is the percentage of Life Members who have Master Degrees (MD), taking all six Institutions together?
1) 51.9 % 2) 50.7 % 3) 40.5 % 4) 47.3 % 5) 46.1 %
- The total number of Male Life Members in MPG Institutes is what percentage of the total number of numbers of the M Power Group?
1) 8.4% 2) 9.6% 3) 12.5% 4) 14.2% 5) 15.75%
- What is the ratio of the total Male Life Members of MP Institute to the total Female Life Members of PVP Institute?
1) 21:5 2) 23:7 3) 25:6 4) 27:7 5) 28:9
- M Power G
Best for Banking, SSC, RAILWAY, State Govt Job & other Competitive Exams preparation
Bank Exam New Pattern Model Questions
( Predicted Question Bank ) – 2023
Data Interpretation – 23
Directions (Q. 1-5):: Study the following graph carefully to answer the given questions
The following graph shows the percentage profit of two companies (Planet Vidya – i and M Power – i ) over the years.
- In which of the following given years the percentage of expenditure with respect to the income of company M Power – i was less than fifty per cent?
1) 2020 “ 2) 2018 3) 2016 4) 2022 5) 2017
- If the total income of company M Power – i in 2022 was Rs 200 lakhs, what was the expenditure of company Planet Vidya – i in the same year?
1) Rs 111.11 lakhs 2) Rs 114.28 lakhs 3) Rs 110 lakhs 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
- If the total expenditure of company Planet Vidya – i in 2018 was Rs 1.50 lakhs, what was the total income?
1) Rs 240 lakhs 2) Rs 255 lakhs 3) Rs 250 lakhs 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
- In which of the following years was the total income more than double the total expenditure in that year for company Planet Vidya – i ?
1) 2017 2) 2020 3) 2022 4) 2019 5) 2021
- In which of the following years the ratio of expenditure to income was the least for company M Power – i ?
1) 2017 2) 2020 3) 2019 4) 2021 5) 2016
Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following graphs carefully to answer the given questions
Area and Population of different localities in Bhubaneswar
- In case of how many localities the density of population was more than 12000 per square kilometre?
1) Two 2) Five 3) Three 4) Four 5) None of these
- What is the approximate ratio of the areas of locality VA to the areas of localities VS and SN together”
1) 1 : 3.8 2) 1 : 3.5 3) 1 : 5.2 4) 1:4.5 5) 1:4.1
- Among the given localities of Bhubaneswar, in case of how many localities the area of that locality was more than 15 per cent of the total areas taken together?
l) One 2) Three 3) two 4) Can’t say 5) None of these
- Approximately how much more is the density of population of locality VA in comparison to that of locality VS?
1) 15000 2) 18000 3) 13000 4) 14000 5) None of these
- For which two localities of Bhubaneswar, the density of population is approximately equal?
1) No localities 2) VS and SN 3) CS and NA 4) RS and NA 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given.
Ratio of Exports to Imports (in Rs.) of two companies ( Planet- V and Power- G ) over the years
- The export of company Power- G in 2020 was Rs 156 cr. what was the value of its import in that year?
1) Rs 187.2 cr 2) Rs l30 cr 3) Rs 140 cr 4) Rs 156 cr 5) None of these
- In which year(s) was the difference between import and export of company Planet- V the minimum?
1) 2017 2) 2021 3) 2022 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
- For company Power- G , in how many of the given years ere the imports more than the exports?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
- The difference between exports and imports for company Planet- V in 2019 was Rs 120 cr. Then what was the total amount of exports and imports for company Planet- V in that year?
1) Rs 240 cr 2) Rs 348 cr 3) Rs 300 cr 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
- In 2022, the ratio of exports of company Planet- V to that of company Power- G was 3 : 4. If the import of company Planet- V during that year was Rs 60 cr, what was the import of company Power- G during that year?
I) Rs 140cr 2) Rs 112cr
4) Can’t be determined
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following graph (and table, given on the next page) carefully to answer the below questions, accordingly:
- The actual number of students qualified from institute TPV and MPG in 2021 together is what per cent less than the number of students targeted of PV and Planet V in 2019?
1) 9.48% 2)10.47% 3)8.72% 4) 12.23% 5) 6%
- In how many of the given years was the percentage of actual qualified with respect to targeted number of students qualified more than 80% for institute TPV?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) None of these
- In which of the following years was the actual number of students qualified from institute Planet V equal to the average actual number of students qualified from institute Planet V over the given years?
1) 2021 2) 2017 3) 2020 4) 2019 5) 2018
- What was the difference between the actual number of students qualified from institute MPG in 2022 and the targeted number of students qualified from institute PV in 2018
1) 43 2) 37 3) 52 4) 44 5) None of these
- In which of the following years was the percentage of actual qualified with respect to targeted number of students qualified from institute MP the highest?
1) 2018 2) 2020 3) 2022 4) 2019 5) None of these
The following graph and table show the number of students targeted and actual number of students qualified in various competitive exams, from 5 top coaching institutes ( PV, MP, TPV, Planet V and MPG) in Bhubaneswar, in different years.
M Power G
SBI PO,
State Bank of India Probationary Officer Vacancies 2023
Recruitment 2023 for 2023 – 2024
( Indian Govt. Jobs 2023 )
Advertisement No: CRPD/PO/2023-24/19
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department SBI Jobs 2023
: Eligibility, notification, syllabus, pattern, last date, important dates
– Any Graduate can apply
(Applications are invited for appointment as Probationary Officers (POs) in State Bank of India.Jobs 2023 )
– Contact us for Special New Batch
Planet Vidya Live Online Class / Offline Class or Both in Hybrid Mode
( Best Online or Offline or Both Classes in Hybrid Mode at Rs. 11450 ! + Offers)
Last Date of Submission (of Online Registration): 27.09.2023 (27TH Sept. 2023)
| Are you ready to pursue a distinguished career in the government sector as a State Bank of India Probationary Officer? *Unlock Your Dream Career as an SBI PO (Officer) in 2023 with Planet Vidya* Are you yearning for a prestigious career as an SBI PO (Officer) in 2023? Do you aspire to join the largest and most esteemed bank in India? Imagine earning a handsome salary and enjoying a host of perks and benefits. If this vision resonates with you, then you’ve arrived at the perfect destination. Planet Vidya is your passport to success, offering tried-and-true strategies, expert guidance, and a legacy of triumph. *Who We Are* Planet Vidya stands tall as a renowned coaching institute for SBI PO (Officer) 2023, and our legacy dates back to 1999. We’ve guided countless students to transform their career aspirations into reality. Our track record proudly boasts: – Over 10,000 students cracking the SBI PO exam in the past 24 years. – Producing more than 500 successful SBI POs in the last 5 years alone. – Consistently achieving a success rate of over 90% in every batch. We are more than just an institute; we’re your partners in the journey to success. *What We Offer* Our comprehensive coaching program for SBI PO (Officer) 2023 is designed to equip you with everything you need to conquer the exam. Here’s what awaits you when you embark on this transformative journey with us: – *Comprehensive Tips & Strategies:* Our specialization in SBI PO (Officer) 2023 ensures that, within just 20 minutes, you’ll gain self-awareness and uncover the tricks essential for success. – *Detailed Banking Preparation:* While there might not be an official syllabus for Bank Examination 2023, we’ve got you covered. You’ll focus on crucial chapters, harness shortcuts, and engage in rigorous practice. – *Qualified Faculty:* Our dedicated team of experienced educators is unwavering in their commitment to your triumph. They employ innovative teaching techniques, making learning both enjoyable and effective. – *Personalized Attention:* We firmly believe in the power of quality education and provide small group sizes for personalized, one-on-one interactions. At Planet Vidya, you’re not just a student; you’re family. – *Flexible Learning Options:* Choose your preferred mode of learning, whether it’s live online classes, offline classes, or a hybrid approach. We’re here to make learning convenient for you. – *Regular Mock Tests:* Prepare yourself thoroughly with our regular mock tests and doubt-clearing sessions, ensuring you step into the examination hall brimming with confidence. *What Our Students Say* Don’t simply take our word for it; hear from our students who have experienced transformation with Planet Vidya: – “Planet Vidya is the ultimate coaching institute for the SBI PO exam. The teachers are not only supportive but also incredibly knowledgeable. They helped me clear all my doubts and strengthen my weaknesses. The mock tests were a game-changer, boosting my confidence and speed. My success story owes a lot to Planet Vidya.” – Ravi Kumar, SBI PO 2022 – “I joined Planet Vidya after facing the disappointment of failing the SBI PO exam twice. I was demotivated and losing hope. But Planet Vidya turned it all around. They taught me the smart and strategic approach to the exam, offering tips and tricks that made a world of difference. Thanks to Planet Vidya, I finally cleared the exam with flying colors.” – Priya Sharma, SBI PO 2021 – “Becoming an SBI PO was my lifelong dream, but I was clueless about how to prepare for it. I stumbled upon Planet Vidya online and was impressed by their track record and testimonials. Taking a chance turned out to be the best decision I made. Planet Vidya not only made my dream come true but guided me every step of the way, helping me crack the exam on my first attempt.” – Rajesh Singh, SBI PO 2020 *How to Join Us* Are you ready to pursue a distinguished career in the government sector as a State Bank of India Probationary Officer? Is it time to elevate your career to new heights and transform your dreams into reality? If your answer is a resounding “yes,” don’t hesitate any longer. Join us today and secure your future. To enroll, all you need is a Graduation Degree (BA, B. Com, BSc, B. Tech, etc.) from a recognized university. Take the first step toward your success: – Visit our website at [www.theplanetvidya.org] ( https://theplanetvidya.org/ ). – Complete the registration form. – For any queries, you can reach us at [9437081288] or email us at [theplanetvidya@gmail.com]. * Hurry, because the seats are limited! Planet Vidya – Where Dreams Take Flight! * | |
| Activity Tentative Dates On-line registration including Editing/ Modification of Application by candidates 07.09.2023 to 27.09.2023 Payment of Application Fee 07.09.2023 to 27.09.2023 Download of Preliminary Examination Call Letters 2 nd Week of October 2023 onwards Phase-I: Online Preliminary Examination November 2023 Declaration of Result of Preliminary Examination November / December 2023 Download of Main Examination Call letter November / December 2023 Phase-II: Online Main Examination December 2023/ January 2024 Declaration of Result of Main Examination December 2023 / January 2024 Download of Phase-III Call Letter January / February 2024 Phase-III: Psychometric Test January / February 2024 Interview & Group Exercises January / February 2024 Declaration of Final Result February / March 2024 Pre-Examination Training for SC/ ST/ OBC/Religious Minority Community candidates Download of call letters for Pre-Examination Training 1 st week of October 2023 onwards Conduct of Pre- Examination Training 2 nd week of October 2023 onwards Candidates are advised to regularly visit Bank’s website |
SBI CLER ,( JUNIOR ASSOCIATES )
State Bank of India Probationary Officer Vacancies 2023
Recruitment 2023 for 2023 – 2024
( Indian Govt. Jobs 2023 )
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department SBI Jobs 2023
: Eligibility, notification, syllabus, pattern, last date, important dates
– Any Graduate can apply
SBI Clerk ( JUNIOR ASSOCIATES ) RECRUITMENT EXAM. – 2023
[Online Regist.: – 17th Nov. to 7th Dec. 2023]
SBI Clerk ( JUNIOR ASSOCIATES ) RECRUITMENT EXAM. – 2023
[Online Regist.: – 17th Nov. to 7th Dec. 2023]
The details of the posts to be filled are mentioned in the table given below :
www.theplanetvidya.org ( ପୁରଣ ହେବାକୁ ଥିବା ପୋଷ୍ଟଗୁଡ଼ିକର ବିବରଣୀ ନିମ୍ନ ସାରଣୀରେ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରାଯାଇଛି |. theplanetvidya.org/banking/
| Post Name | JUNIOR ASSOCIATES (SBI Clerk) | Syllabus of Exam. ( Objective Type ) on-line test | ||||||||||
| Phase-I: Preliminary Examination: | ||||||||||||
| Sl. | Name of Test | Exam Medium | No. of Questions | Max. Marks | Time | |||||||
| Pay Scale | Rs. 47920 | 1. | English language | English | 30 | 30 | 20 min. | |||||
| 2. | Numerical Ability | * | 35 | 35 | 20 min. | |||||||
| Qualification | Graduation / +3 (Aspirants in the final year may also apply) | 3. | Reasoning Ability | * | 35 | 35 | 20 min. | |||||
| Total | 100 | 100 | 1 Hour | |||||||||
| Phase – II: Main Examination: Structure of Online Main Exam | ||||||||||||
| Age | 20–28 years as on 1-4-23 (+ Relaxation to 41 years) | Sl. | Test Name | Medium | Qs No. | Marks | Time | |||||
| 1. | General/ Financial Awareness. | * | 50 | 50 | 35 min | |||||||
| Event Last Date | Online:Registrat. 17-11-23 | 2. | General English | English | 40 | 40 | 35 min | |||||
| & Submission 07-12-23 | 3. | QuantitativeAptitude | * | 50 | 50 | 45 min. | ||||||
| Unlock Your Dream Career with Planet Vidya’s 2023 Bank, Railway, SSC and Odisha (ଓଡିଶା) Officer Job Training! Join Us for Top-notch Coaching for .Govt. Banking Jobs TOP GOVT JOB PREPARATION / COACHING – PLANET VIDYA SBI Clerk ( SPECIAL BATCH of 25 ) ) | 4. | Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude | * | 50 | 60 | 45 min | ||||||
| Total | 190 | 200 | 02:40 | |||||||||
| + And test of specified opted local language.. | ||||||||||||
| Top notch Banking coaching in BBSR – PLANET VIDYA for SBI IBPS /– Best Live Online Classes / Offline Classes or Both in Hybrid Mode ( for Bank Po, Bank Clerk and SO Jobs ) : 2023 – 2024 | ||||||||||||
SBI CLERK,,
State Bank of India / SBI Clerk ( JUNIOR ASSOCIATES ) Vacancies 2023
Are you looking for a rewarding career in the banking sector? Do you want to join the prestigious State Bank of India as a Junior Associate (Clerk)? If yes, then you need to prepare well for the SBI Clerk 2023 exam, which is one of the most competitive exams in the country.
SBI has released the notification for 8773 vacancies for the SBI Clerk 2023 exam, out of which 8283 are regular posts and 490 are backlog posts¹. The online application process has started from 17th November 2023 and will end on 7th December 2023². The selection process consists of two stages: Preliminary and Main exams, which test your English, Numerical Ability, Reasoning, and General Awareness skills³.
To crack the SBI Clerk 2023 exam, you need the best guidance and coaching from the experts. That’s why you should join Planet Vidya Academy, the leading institute for competitive examinations coaching in Bhubaneswar. Planet Vidya Academy offers you the following benefits:
– Classroom/ Online or Hybrid Mode of classes, as per your convenience and preference
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– Personalized attention and feedback, to help you improve your performance and confidence
– Affordable fee structure and flexible payment options, to suit your budget and needs
Don’t miss this golden opportunity to join the Special Batch for SBI Clerk 2023 exam at Planet Vidya Academy. Enroll now and get ready to achieve your dream of working in the State Bank of India. For more details, visit our website [ www.theplanetvidya.org ]or call us at [ phone number 9437081288 ].
Planet Vidya Academy – Your Partner in Success!
Success Stories: Aspiring individuals who have achieved success in government jobs share positive reviews of their experience with Planet Vidya Coaching Center :
Planet Vidya Academy – Your Partner in Success!
Planet Vidya Competitive Coaching Center is a coaching institute in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, that offers various courses for competitive examinations such as banking, SSC, railway, IAS, OAS, etc. According to their website¹, they claim to be the best institute For Civil Services, Banking, Railway, SSC and MBA, with experienced faculty, comprehensive study material, mock tests, doubt sessions, and personalized feedback. They also provide online and offline classes, as well as hostel facilities for boys and girls. Some of their features and achievements are:
– They have been established since 1999 and have produced many successful candidates in various exams¹.
– They have a unique teaching methodology that focuses on basic conceptual clarity, accuracy, speed, and shortcut techniques¹.
– They have a low fee structure and flexible payment options, as well as scholarships for meritorious students².
– They have a high rating and positive reviews from their students on various platforms such as Facebook, Google, and JustDial¹.
– They have been ranked as the top coaching institute in Odisha, a website that provides information and reviews
about coaching institutes.
“I joined Planet Vidya for SSC CGL coaching and I am very happy with my decision. The faculty is very experienced and helpful. They taught me the concepts, shortcuts, and tricks to solve the questions in less time. The study material and mock tests are also very useful. I cleared the exam with a good score and got selected as an auditor in CAG. Thanks to Planet Vidya for making my dream come true.”
“Planet Vidya is the best coaching institute for banking exams in Bhubaneswar. I enrolled for the IBPS PO course and I was impressed by the quality of teaching and guidance. The teachers are very knowledgeable and friendly. They cleared all my doubts and motivated me to work hard. The online classes and test series are also very helpful. I cracked the exam and got a job in SBI. I am very grateful to Planet Vidya for their support and encouragement.”
SBI Clerk Jobs 2023: Achieve your dream career with Planet Vidya Academy. Join our special batch for comprehensive coaching in classroom, online or hybrid mode.
SBI Clerk Jobs 2023: Prepare for success with Planet Vidya Academy. Our special batch offers you the best coaching in classroom, online or hybrid mode.
SBI Clerk Jobs 2023: Crack the exam with confidence with Planet Vidya Academy. Our special batch provides you with expert coaching in classroom, online or hybrid mode.
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Competitive Examinations
Planet Vidya is a leading coaching institute for competitive examinations in India. Whether you are preparing for banking, railway, SSC, civil services, or any other government job, Planet Vidya can help you achieve your dream career. With our online, offline, or hybrid mode of coaching, you can access the best quality education from anywhere and anytime. Our experienced and qualified faculty will guide you through the latest syllabus, exam pattern, and strategies to crack any exam with confidence. You will also get access to online tests, study materials, doubt clearing sessions, and personalized feedback. Join Planet Vidya today and get ready to face the Common Eligibility Test (CET) by National Recruitment Agency (NRA) and other exams with ease. Planet Vidya – the ultimate destination for success.
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